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7Civil Service Examinations
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Civil services examination ,Preparing for the IAS preliminery examination papers GS
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GS PRE Civil Services Examination 2003
held on 18th May, 2003
Q1. The Basque people who are frequently in the news for their separatist activity live in:
(a)
(C) Portugal (d)
Q 2. Match List-I (High Officials) with List-II (Organisation) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(High Officials) (Organisation)
A. C. P. Jain 1. Indian Airlines
B. S. Ramadoral 2. NTPC
C. Sunil Arora 3. TCS
D. Vivek Paul 4. Wipro Technologis
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 2 1 3 4
Q 3. Which one of the following statements if correct?
(a) Liquid Sodium is employed as a coolant in nuclear reactors
(b) Calcium carbonate is an ingredient of tooth paste
(c) Bordeaux mixture consists of Sodium sulphate and lime
(d) Zinc amalgams are used as a dental filling
Q 4. Consider the following statements:
1. The Cholas defeated Pandya and Chera rulers and established their domination over peninsular
2. The Cholas sent an expedition against Sailendra empire of
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 5. Diffusion of light in the atmosphere takes place due to:
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Dust particles
(c) Helium (d) Water vapours
Q6. In
(a) Hindustan Commercial Bank
(b) Oudh Commercial Bank
(c) Punjab National Bank
(d)
7. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) The Press Council of India is an autonomous quasijudicial body established under an Act of Parliament
(b) The Press Information Bureau provides accreditation to media persons so as to have easy access to information from government sources
(c) Among all the States of India, Maharashtra publishes the largest number of newspapers
(d) Press Trust of India is the largest news agency in the country.
8. The government holding in BPCL is:
(a) more than 70%
(b) between 60% and 70%
(c) between 50% and 60%
(d) less than 50%
9. Consider the following statements regarding the relations between
(1) During Shimla Agreement, Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Bhutto agreed to maintain the sanctity of LOC.
(2) Lahore Summit took place in the year 1997.
(3) Islamabad Summit was held between Rajiv Gandhi and Nawaz Sharif.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 (d) Only 1
10. During the year 2000-01, which one of the following industries recorded highest growth rate in
(a) Cement (b) Coal
(c) Electricity (d) Steel
11. An oil tanker is partially filled with oil and moves forward on a level road with uniform acceleration. The free surface of oil then:
(a) remains horizontal
(b) is inclined to the horizontal with smaller depth at the rear end.
(c) Is inclined to the horizontal with larger depth at the rear end
(d) Assumes parabolic curve
12. In which one of the following countries is Rupee its currency?
(a)
(c)
13. Which one of the following countries is land locked?
(a)
(c)
14. Which one of the following countries does NOT border the
(a)
(c)
15. The sportsperson Soma Biswas is associated with:
(a) Sailing (b) Hockey
(c) Golf (d) Athletic
16. Which one of the following is produced during the formation of photochemical
smog?
(a) Hydrocarbons (b) Nitrogen Oxides
(c) Ozone (d) Methane
17. Consider the following statements:
1. Kitab-I-Nauras, a collection of songs in praise of Hindu deities and Muslim saints, was written by Ibrahim Adil Shah II.
2. Amir Khusrau was the originator in
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
18. Three bells toll at intervals of 9, 12 and 15 minutes respectively. All the three begin to toil at 8 a.m. At what time will they first toll together again?
(a) 8.45 a.m. (b) 10.30 a.m.
(c) 11.00 a.m. (d) 1.30 p.m.
19. Match List-I (Distinguished Lady) with List-II (Organisation/Industry) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Distinguished Lady) (Organisation/Industry)
A. Amrita Patel 1. National Dairy Development Board
B. Anu Aga 2. Park Hotels
C. Mallika Srinivasan 3. Pfizer Limited
D. Priya Paul 4. Thermax Limited
5. Tractors and Farm Equipment Limited
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 5 2
(b) 2 4 1 5
(c) 1 3 5 2
(d) 2 3 1 5
20. Consider the following statements:
In the Electoral College for Presidential Election in India,
1. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals
State Population
Number of elected MLAs of the State x 100
2. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament equals
Total value of the votes of all elected MLAs
Total number of elected MPs
3. there were more than 5000 members in the latest election.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 3
21. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) Ali Mardan Khan introduced the system of revenue farming in Bengal
(b) Maharaja Ranjit Singh set up modern foundries to manufacture cannons at Lahore
(c) Sawai Jai Singh of Amber had Euclid’s ‘Elements of Geometry’ translated into Sanskrit
(d) Sultan Tipu of Mysore gave money for the construction of the idol of Goddess Sarda in the Shringeri temple
22. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States?
(a) 6th and 22nd (b) 13th and 38th
(c) 7th and 31st (d) 11th and 42nd
23. How did Sultan Qutb-ud-din Aibak die?
(a) He was treacherously stabbed to death by one of his ambitious nobles
(b) He was killed in a battle with Taj-u-din Yildiz, the ruler of Ghazni who entered into a contest with him over the capture of Punjab
(c) He sustained injuries while besieging the fortress of Kalinjar in Bundelkhand and succumbed to them later
(d) He died after a fall from his horse while playing Chaugan
24. Among the following which planet takes maximum time for one revolution around the Sun?
(a) Earth (b) Jupiter
(c) Japanese (d) Portuguese
26. Which one of the following provisions was NOT made in the Charter Act of 1833?
(a) The trading activities of the East India Company were to be abolished
(b) (b) The designation of the supreme authority was to be changed as the Governor-General of India in Council
(c) All law-making powers to be conferred on Governor-General in Council
(d) An Indian was to be appointed as a Law Member in the Governor-General’s Council
27. With reference to normal human beings, consider the following statements:
1. In response to the presence of HCL, secretin is produced from the duodenum.
2. Enterogastrone is produced in the small intestine in response to the presence of fatty acids.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(b) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
28. Survey of
(a) Defence (b) Environment and Forests
(c) Home Affairs (d) Science and Technology
29. Which among the following countries was the earliest to give women the right to vote?
(a)
(c)
30. Total time taken by a person in going to a place by walking and returning on cycle is 5 hours 45 minutes. He would have gained 2 hours by cycling both ways. The time taken by him to walk both ways is:
(a) 6 hours 45 minutes
(b) 7 hours 45 minutes
(c) 8 hours 15 minutes
(d) 8 hours 30 minutes
31. Sandeep Pandey, the winner of Ramon Magsaysay Award is mainly an activist in:
(a) prevention of child marriages
(b) promotion of communal harmony
(c) environmental protection
(d) education and livelihood projects for Dalits
32. What was the main reason for a great civil strife in
(a) Ethnic conflict between the native Red Indian tribes and others
(b) Economic crisis due to huge public debt
(c) The issue of using native languages as medium of instruction in schools
(d) Clashes between government troops and secessionist groups
33. With reference to colonial rule in
(a) To bring Indians and Europeans on par as far as the criminal jurisdiction of courts was concerned
(b) To impose severe restrictions on the freedom of the native press as it was perceived to be hostile to colonial rulers
(c) To encourage the native Indians to appear for civil service examinations by conducting them in India
(d) To allow native Indians to possess arms by amending the Arms Act.
34. An important aspect of the Cripps Mission of 1942 was:
(a) that all Indian States should join the Indian Union as a condition to consider any degree of autonomy for India
(b) the creation of an Indian Union with Dominion status very soon after the Second World War
(c) the active participation and cooperation of the Indian people, communities and political parties in the British war effort as a condition for granting independence with full sovereign status to India after war.
(d) The framing of a constitution for the entire Indian Union, with no separate constitution for any province, and a Union Constitution to be accepted by all provinces
35. When Congress leaders condemned the Montagu-Chelmsford Report, many moderates left the party to form the:
(a) Swarajya party
(b) Indian Freedom Party
(c) Independence Federation of India
(d) Indian Liberal Federation
36. In the FIFA World Cup Football event in the year 2002, the number of goals scored by Ronaldo of Brazil were:
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
37. Who won the title in the finals of French Open men’s singles tennis championship in the year 2002?
(a) Albert Costa (b) Juan Carlos Ferrero
(c) Andre Agassi (d) Pete Sampras
38. Consider the following statements:
The function(s) of the Finance Commission is/are
1. to allow the withdrawal of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. to allocate between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes.
3. to consider applications for grants-in-aid from States.
4. to supervise and report on whether the
39. Which one among the following States has the highest female literacy rate as per the Census 2001?
(a) Chattisgarh (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Orissa (d) Rajasthan
40. Which one among the following countries has the lowest GDP per capita?
(a)
(b)
(c) Indonesia
(d)
41. Consider the following statements:
1. In Macedonia, ethnic Albanians are a minority.
2. 2. In Kosovo, Serbians area majority.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
42.
(a)
(b)
(c) Cyprus,
(d)
43. What is the correct sequence of the rivers – Godavari, Mahanadi,
(a) Godavari-Mahanadi-Narmada-Tapi
(b) Godavari-Narmada-Mahanadi-Tapi
(c) Narmada-Godavari-Tapi-Mahanadi
(d) Narmada-Tapi-Godavari-Mahanadi
44. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by one percent, its mass remaining the same, the value of ‘g’ on the earth’s surface would:
(a) increase by 0.5%
(b) increase by 2%
(c) decrease by 0.5%
(d) decrease by 2%
45. With reference to the entry of European powers into
(a) The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499
(b) The English opened their first factory in South India at Masulipatam
(c) In Eastern India, the English Company opened its first factory in Orissa in 1633
(d) Under the leadership of Dupleix, the French occupied Madras in 1746
46. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) The Rowlatt Act aroused a wave of popular indignation and led to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre
(b) Subhas Chandra Bose formed the Forward Bloc
(c) Bhagat Singh was one of the founders of Hindustan Republican Socialist Association
(d) In 1931, the Congress Session at Karachi opposed Gandhi_Irwin Pact
47. Consider the following statements:
1. In the last five years, Indian software exports have increased at a compound annual growth rate of about 60%
2. The software and service industry in
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
48. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a)
(b)
(c) India is the second largest producer of silk in the world
(d)
49. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members
(b) There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha
(c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister.
(d) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential elections
50. With reference to Government of India’s decisions regarding Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) during the year 2001-02, consider the following statements:
1. Out of the 100% FDI allowed by
2. Regarding the FDI in print media in
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
51. Alam Khan, one of those who invited Babur to invade India was:
(a) an uncle of Ibrahim Lodi and a pretender to the throne of Delhi
(b) a cousin of Ibrahim Lodi who was illtreated and expelled from the country
(c) the father of Dilawar Khan to whom cruel treatment was meted out by Ibrahim Lodi
(d) a high official in Punjab province who was very much discontented with Ibrahim Lodi’s treatment to his tribe
52. The battle of Dharmat was fought between
(a) Muhammad Ghori and Jai Chand
(b) Babur and the Afghans
(c) Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh
(d) Ahmad Shah Durrani and the Marathas
53. Which one among the following has the largest shipyard in
(a) Kolkata (b) Kochi
(c) Mimbai (d)
54. Three flags, each of different colour, are available for a military exercise. Using these flags, different codes can be generated by waving
(1) single flag of different colours, or
(2) any two flags in a different sequence of colours, or
(3) three flags in a different sequence of colours
The maximum number of codes that can be generated is:
(a) 6 (b) 9
(c) 15 (d) 18
55. Match List-I (Organisation) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Organisation) (Location)
A. National Sugar Institute 1. Dehradun
B. Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited 2. Kamptee
C. Institute of Military Law 3. Pune
D. Institute of National Integration 4.
5.
Codes
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 5 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 5 2
(d) 5 4 2 3
56. Tim Montgomery set a new world record at the IAAF Grand Prix final in the year 2002 in:
(a) Long Jump
(b) 110 m Hurdle race
(c) 100 m Dash
(d) High Jump
57. With reference to the work of human kidney, consider the following statements:
1. After the waste is removed in the kidney, the cleaner blood is sent back through renal artery
2. From Bowman’s capsule, the filtered liquid passes through tiny tubes where much of the glucose is reabsorbed and sent back to the blood in the renal vein.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
58. A hydrogen-inflated polythene balloon is released from the surface of the earth. As the balloon rises to an altitude up in the atmosphere, it will:
(a) decrease in size
(b) flatten into a disc-like shape
(c) increase in size
(d) maintain the same size and shape
59. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative Powers rests with:
(a) The President of
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs
60. Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b)
(c)
61. Under which article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the Supreme Court to seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election Commission’s decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly elections (in the year 2002)?
(a) Article 142
(b) Article 143
(c) Article 144
(d) Article 145
62. Consider the following statements:
1.
2. For the first time, the space vehicle PSLV-C4 carried a payload of more than 1000 kg into a geosynchronous orbit.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
63. Nanda Devi peak forms a part of:
(a) Assam Himalayas (b) Kumaon Himalayas
(c) Nepal Himalayas (d) Punjab
64. Consider the following statements:
1.
2.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
65. Who is the author of the book ‘New Dimensions of India’s Foreign Policy’?
(a) A. B. Vajpayee (b) Jaswant Singh
(c) P. C. Alexander (d) Yashwant Sinha
66. How did the Mughal Emperor Jahandar Shah’s reign come to an early end?
(a) He was deposed by his Wazir
(b) He died due to a slip while climbing down steps
(c) He was defeated by his nephew in a battle
(d) He died of sickness due to too much consumption of wine
67. In
(a)
(c)
68. Consider the following statements:
1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings, members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from Lok Sabha.
2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee on parliamentary Affairs
3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nominates Members of parliament on Committees, Councils, Boards and Commissions etc. set up by the Government of India in the various ministries.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
69. The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee, whose permission is required for cultivation of any genetically modified crop such as Bt-Cotton in
(a) Agriculture
(b) Environment and Forests
(c) Commerce and Industry
(d) Rural Development
70. As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?
(a) Deputy Prime Minister
(b) Former President
(c) Governor of a State within his State
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
71. Among the following cities, which one is at the highest altitude above mean sea level?
(a)
(c)
72. Consider the following statements:
1. Steam at 1000C and boiling water at 1000C contain same amount of heat.
2. Latent heat of fusion of ice is equal to the latent heat of vaporization of water
3. In an air-conditioner, heat is extracted from the room-air at the evaporator coils and is rejected out at the condenser coils.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 2 (d) Only 3
73. Consider the following statements:
1. Molasses is a by-product of sugar production process.
2. Bagasse obtained in the sugar mills is used as a fuel in the boilers to generate steam for the sugar factories.
3. Sugar can only be produced from sugarcane as the raw material.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
74. Consider the following statements:
1. Longitude of
2. Latitude of
3.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
75. Which one among the following States is smallest in area?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b)
(c) Karnataka (d) Tamil Nadu
76. Consider the following statements:
A4-wheel vehicle moving in a sharp circular path at high speed will:
1. overturn about its outer wheels.
2. overturn about its inner wheels
3. skid outwards
4. skid inwards
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
77. Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of States and specifies their territories?
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fourth
78. In the year 2002, the President of India presented the national award for excellence in public administration and management sciences to:
(a) Kumar Manglam Birla
(b) N. R. Narayana Murthy
(c) `Rahul Bajaj
(d) Ratan Tata
79. ‘A’ and ‘B’ are two fixed points in a field. A cyclist ‘C’ moves such that ACB is always a right angle. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The path followed by the cyclist is an ellipse
(b) The path followed by the cyclist is a circle
(c) The path followed by the cyclist is an exponential curve
(d) This type of motion is not possible
80. The thermal power plant of Bokaro is located in:
(a)
(c) Jharkhand (d) Orissa
81. Among the following commodities imported by
(a) Edible oil
(b) Fertilizers
(c) Organic and inorganic chemicals
(d) Pearls, precious and semi-precious stones
82. With reference to ionic compounds, consider the following statements:
1. Ionic compounds are insoluble in alcohol.
2. Ionic compounds in the solid state are good conductors of electricity.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
83. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) The presence of NACI increases the rate of setting of Plaster of Paris
(b) Gypsum is added to the cement to slow down its rate of setting
(c) All alkaline earth metals form hydrated salts
(d) Barium and Strontium are found free in nature
84. With reference to
(a) IPCL is India’s largest petrochemical company
(b) RIL is the largest private sector company in India
(c) MTNL is listed on NYSE
(d) BSNL is the first telecom service organization in India to launch a nationwide cellular service at one time
85. Which amongst the following States has the highest population density as per Census-2001?
(a) Kerala (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d)
86. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by:
(a) First Amendment
(b) Eighth Amendment
(c) Ninth Amendment
(d) Forty second Amendment
87. Who headed the Interim Cabinet formed in the year 1946?
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Rajagopalachari
88. The waterfall’Victoria’ is associated with the river:
(a) Amazon (b)
(c) St.
89. The leader of the Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) was:
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Vithalbhai J. Patel
(d) Mahadev Desai
90. The Kelkar proposals which were in the news recently were the:
(a) recommendations for reforms in the power sector
(b) recommendations for tax reforms
(c) guidelines for the privatization of public sector undertakings
(d) guidelines for reducing vehicular pollution, and the promotion of CNG use
91. Consider the following statements:
1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961
3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
92. Life expectancy is highest in the world in:
(a)
(c) Japan (d)
93. During the colonial period in
(a) To review the fitness of
(b) To report on the existing conditions of labour and to make recommendations
(c) To draw up a plan for financial reforms for
(d) To develop a comprehensive scheme for Civil Services in
94. Octopus is:
(a) an arthropod
(b) an echinoderm
(c) a hemichordate
(d) a mollusk
95. Consider the following conditions of a sick human body:
1. Swollen lymph nodes
2. Sweating at night
3. Loss of memory
4. Loss of weight
Which of these are the symptoms of AIDS?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
96. Emperor Harsha’s southward march was stopped on the
(a) Pulakesin-I (b) Pulakesin-II
(c) Vikramaditya-I (d) Vikramaditya-II
97. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his assent to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002)?
(a) Article 121 (b) Article 122
(c) Article 123 (d) Article 124
98. Dilip Kaur Tiwana is well known as a:
(a) literature (b) musician
(c) scientist (d) sportsperson
99. Consider the following statements:
1. The maximum limit of shareholding of Indian promoters in private sector banks in
2. Foreign Direct Investment upto 49 percent from all sources is permitted in private sector banks in
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
100. Match List-I (Cricketer) with List-II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Cricketer) (Country)
A. Barry Richards 1.
B. Ted Dexter 2.
C. Alan Davidson 3. South Africa
D. Charlie Griffith 4.
5.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 5 1
(b) 5 1 4 2
(c) 3 1 5 2
(d) 5 2 4 1
101. Regarding the atom of a chemical element, the magnetic quantum number refers to:
(a) orientation (b) shape
(c) size (d) spin
102. Consider the following statements:
1. The common blue green algae Spirogyra and Ulothrix are found in both fresh water ponds and oceans.
2. The chameleon can look ahead with one eye, and at the same time look behind with another.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
103. Which among the following countries has the largest population?
(a)
(c) Pakistan (d)
Directions: The following fifteen (15) items consist of two statements: one labeled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
104. Assertion (A): Emperor Akbar marched towards
Reason (R): He was on his way to reclaim his ancestral country of Ferghana in
105. Assertion (A): During the year 2001-02, the value of
Reason (R): During the year 2001-02, negative growth in exports was witnessed in respect of iron and steel, coffee, textiles and marine products.
106. Assertion (A): The eastern coast of
Reason (R): The eastern coast receives more rainfall than the western coast.
107. Assertion (A): The new EXIM policy is liberal, market-oriented and favours global trade.
Reason (R): GATT has played a significant role in the libralisation of the economy.
108. Assertion (A): In the periodic table of chemical elements, electron affinity is always found to increase from top to bottom in a group.
Reason (R): In a group, the atomic radii generally increase from top to bottom.
109. Assertion (A): Coal-based thermal power stations contribute to acid-rain.
Reason (R): Oxides of carbon are emitted when coal burns.
110. Assertion (A): The weight of a body decreases with the increase of latitude on earth.
Reason (R): The earth is not a perfect sphere.
111. Assertion (A): Unsaturated fats are more reactive compared with the saturated fats.
Reason (R): Unsaturated fats have only single bonds in their structure.
112. Assertion (A): The amount of moisture in the atmosphere is related to latitude.
Reason (R): The capacity to hold moisture in the form of water vapour is related to temperature.
113. Assertion (A): Unlike temperate forests, the tropical rain forests, if cleared, can yield productive farmland that can support intensive agriculture for several years even without chemical fertilizers.
Reason (R): The primary productivity of the tropical rain forest is very high when compared to that of the temperate forests.
114. Assertion (A): In 1916, Maulana Mohammad Ali and Abul Kalam Azad resigned from the Legislative Council.
Reason (R): The Rowlatt Act was passed by the Government in spite of being opposed by all Indian members of the Legislative Council.
115. Assertion (A): Shah Alam Ii spent the initial years as an Emperor far away from his capital.
Reason (R): There was always a lurking danger of foreign invasion from the north-west frontier.
116. Assertion (A): Areas lying within five to eight degrees latitude on either side of the equator receive rainfall throughout the year.
Reason (R): High temperatures and high humidity cause convectional rain to fall mostly in the afternoons near the equator.
117. Assertion (A): Saluva Narasimha put an end to the old dynasty and assumed the royal title.
Reason (R): He wanted to save the kingdom from further degeneration and disintegration.
118. Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in
Reason (R): Marathas were the first to have a clear concept of a united Indian nation.
119. In December 2002, the prime Minister of India signed ‘Delhi declaration’ with the:
(a) President of Indonesia
(b) President of Russia
(c) Prime Minister of Cambodia
(d) Prime Minister of Laos
120. Among the following cities, which one is nearest to the Tropic of Cancer?
(a)
(c)
121. ‘Mrichchhakatika’ an ancient Indian book written by Shudraka deals with:
(a) the love affair of a rich merchant with the daughter of a courtesan
(b) the victory of Chandragupta II over the Shaka Kshatrapas of western India
(c) the military expeditions and exploits of Samudragupta
(d) the love affair between a Gupta King and a princess of Kamarupa
122. Consider the following statements:
1. Vardhamana Mahavira’s mother was the daughter of Lichchavi chief Chetaka.
2. Gautama Buddha’s mother was a princess from the Koshalan dynasty.
3. parshvanatha, the twenty-third Tirthankara, belonged to
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
123. A car travels the first one-third of a certain distance with a speed of 10km/hr, the next one-third distance with a speed of 20 km/hr and the last one-third distance with a speed of 60 km/hr. The average speed of the car for the whole journey is:
(a) 18 km/hr (b) 24 km/hr
(c) 30 km/hr (d) 36 km/hr
124. Consider the following statements:
The purpose of adding sodium sulphate and sodium silicate to the detergent in a washing powder is:
1. to keep the washing powder dry.
2. to maintain the alkalinity of the powder
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
125. Debenture holders of a company are its:
(a) Shareholders (b) Creditrso
(c) Debtors (d) Directors
126. Which one of the following statements if NOT correct?
(a) The National Song Vande Mataram was composed by Bankimchandra Chatterji originally in Bengali
(b) The National Calendar of India based on Saka era has its 1st Chaitra on 22nd March normally and 21st March in a leap year
(c) The design of the National Flag of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd July, 1947
(d) The song ‘Jana-gana-mana’, composed originally in Bengali by Rabindranath Tagore was adopted in its Hindi version by the Constituent Assembly on 24th January, 1950 as the national Anthem of India
127. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the duty of the
(a) Article 215 (b) Article 275
(c) Article 325 (d) Article 355
128. ‘A’ walks around a circular field at the rate of one round per hour while ‘B’ runs around it at the rate of six rounds per hour. They start in the same direction from the same point at 7.30 a.m. They shall first cross each other at:
(a) 8.30 a.m. (b). 8.10 a.m.
(c) 7.48 a.m. (d) 7.42 a.m.
129. Consider the following statements:
In India, stamp duties on financial transactions are:
1. levied and collected by the State Government.
2. appropriated by the Union Government.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
130. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) East Timor was a British colony for four centuries
(b) The European colonial rulers handed over East Timor to
(c) The United Nations took over East Timor in 1999 to prepare it for independence
(d)
131. Match List-I (Item in the Indian Constitution) with List-II (Country from which it was derived) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Item in the Indian Constitution) (Country from which it was derived)
A. Directive Principles Of State Policy 1.
B. Fundamental Rights 2.
C. Concurrent List in Union-State Relations 3.
D.
powers to the Union 5.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 5 4 1 2
(b) 3 5 2 1
(c) 5 4 2 1
(d) 3 5 1 2
132. With reference to Indian defence, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) With the induction of Prithvi-II, the IAF is the only air force in the world with surface-to-surface ballistic missiles under its command.
(b) Sukhoi-30 MKI jet fighters can launch air-to-air and air-to-surface precision missiles
(c) Trishul is a supersonic surface-to-air missile with a range of 30 km
(d) The indigenously built INS Prabal can launch surface-to-surface missiles
133. The Indira Gandhi Peace Prize, 2002 was awarded to:
(a) John Hume
(b) Nelson Mandela
(c) Norodom Sihanouk
(d) Sadak Ogata
134. Match List-I (Name of the Person) with List-II (Associated with) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Name of the Person) (Associated with)
A. Brijmohan Lall Munjal 1. Biotechnology
B. Kiran Karnik 2. Automobile industry
C. Kiran Mazumdar Shaw 3. Software industry
D. Sunil Mittal 4. Telecom industry
5.Film industry
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 5 2
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 2 1 5 4
135. Whom did Mahesh Bhupati and Max Mirnyi beat in the US Open men’s doubles tennis championship in the year 2002 to win the title?
(a) Wayne Black and Kevin Ullyett
(b) Mike Bryan and Bob Bryan
(c) Jonas Bjorkman and Todd Woodbridge
(d) Jiri Novak and Radek Stepanek
136. Four different candles, which can last for 5 hours, 4 hours, 3 hours, 2 hours of burning, respectively, are lit in a room at the same instant and allowed to burn till such time that the three candles in the room get extinguished. The cost of burning each one of these candles is 75 paise per hour. The cost involved is:
(a) Rs 2.75 (b) Rs. 3.75
(c) Rs. 9.75 (d) Rs. 12.50
137. Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to FEMA in
(a) The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) was replaced by Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) in the year 2001
(b) FERA was given a sunset clause of one year till 31st May, 2002 to enable Enforcement Directorate to complete the investigation of pending issues
(c) Under FEMA, violation of foreign exchange rules has ceased to be a criminal offence
(d) As per the new dispensation, enforcement Directorate can arrest and prosecute the people for the violation of foreign exchange rules
138. Consider the following statements:
1.
2. During the year 2001-02,
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
139. Who among the following was selected for the 2001 Dada Saheb Phalke Award?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Lata Mangeshkar
(c) Ramanand Sagar
(d) Yash Chopra
140. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) Milk contains none of the B-vitamins
(b) Vitamin-A (retinal) deficiency leads to dry and scaly skin
(c) One of the symptoms of scurvy is pain in the joints
(d) Vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency can lead to heart failure
141. As per the Human Development Index given by UNDP, which one of the following sequences of South Asian countries is correct, in the order of higher to lower development?
(a) India-Sri Lanka-Pakistan-Maldives
(b) Maldives-Sri Lanka-India-Pakistan
(c) Sri Lanka-Maldives-India-Pakistan
(d) Maldives-India-Pakistan-Sri Lanka
142. Which one of the following statements if NOT correct?
(a) The velocity of sound in air increases with the increase of temperature
(b) The velocity of sound in air is independent of pressure
(c) The velocity of sound in air decreases as the humidity increases
(d) The velocity of sound in air is not affected by the change in amplitude and frequency
143. Consider the following statements:
1.
2.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
144. Which one of the following statements if correct?
(a) Alliance Air is a wholly-owned subsidiary of Indian Airlines
(b) The Airports Authority of India manages seven of the country’s international airports
(c) The Airports Authority of India is the regulatory organization for enforcing civil air regulations in India
(d) It is the function of Directorate General of Civil Aviation to plan and construct runways and terminal buildings and to provide air safety services
145. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately, by special majority?
(a) Ordinary Bill
(b) Money Bill
(c) Finance Bill
(d) Constitution Amendment Bill
146. Consider the following animals of
1. Crocodile
2. Elephant
Which of these is/are endangered species?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
147. Which one among the following covers the highest percentage of forest area in the world?
(a) Temperate Coniferous forests
(b) Temperate Deciduous forests
(c) Tropical Monsoon forests
(d) Tropical Rain forests
148. A two member committee comprising of one male and one female member is to be constituted out of five males and three females. Amongst the females, Ms. A refuses to be a member of the committee in which Mr. B is taken as the member. In how many different ways can the committee be constituted?
(a) 11 (b) 12
(c) 13 (d) 14
149. Consider the following statements:
1. The last Mauryan ruler, Brihadratha was assassinated by his commander-in-chief, Pushyamitra Sunga.
2. The last Sunga king, Devabhuti was assassinated by his Brahmana minister Vasudeva Kanva who usurped the throne
3. The last ruler of the Kanva dynasty was deposed by the Andhras.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
150. The aim of education as stated by the Wood’s dispatch of 1854 was:
(a) the creation of employment opportunities for native Indians
(b) the spread of western culture in India
(c) the promotion of literacy among the people using English medium of language
(d) the introduction of scientific research and rationalism in the traditional Indian education
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b)
6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (d)
16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (b)
26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (d)
36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39 (a) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (a)
46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (d)
56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (b)
61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (a)
66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (b) 70. (a)
71. (a) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (d)
76. (a) 77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (d) 80. (c)
81. (d) 82. (d) 83. (d) 84. (a) 85. (a)
86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (b)
91. (a) 92. (c) 93. (b) 94. (d) 95. (d)
96. (b) 97. (c) 98. (a) 99. (b) 100. (a)
101. (a) 102. (b) 103. (a) 104. (c) 105. (d)
106. (c) 107. (c) 108. (d) 109. (b) 110. (b)
111. (c) 112. (d) 113. (d) 114. (d) 115. (b)
116. (b) 117. (a) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (b)
121. (a) 122. (c) 123. (c) 124. (d) 125. (b)
126. (a) 127. (d) 128. (d) 129. (d) 130. (c)
131. (d) 132. (a) 133. (c) 134. (c) 135. (d)
136. (c) 137. (c) 138. (a) 139. (d) 140. (a)
141. (b) 142. (b) 143. (d) 144. (a) 145. (d)
146. (d) 147. (d) 148. (d) 149. (a) 150. (c)
General Studies-06(Indian History Questions only)
GENERAL STUDIES – 2005
Previous year questions (Solved)
General Studies ( Indian History Questions only)
INDIAN HISTORY
1) Consider the following statements :-
1. The Charter Act 1853 abolished East India Company's monopoly of Indian trade.
2. Under the Government of India Act 1858, the British Parliament abolished the East
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans:- (b)
Expl:- The Monopoly trading rights of East India Company was abolished by the
Charter of 1813.
2) When Raja Wodeyar founded the
Vijayanagar Empire?
(a) Sadasiva
(b) Tirumala
(c) Ranga II
(d) Venkata II
Ans:- (d)
Expl:- Venkata II was the last great ruler of Aravindu dynasty with his Permission
Raja Wodeyar founded Mysore.
3) Between which of the following was the ancient town of
(a) Indus and Jhelum
(b) Jhelum and Chenab
(c) Chenab and Rave
(d) Rave and
Ans:- (a)
Expl:- Taxila was one of the ancient learning centres. Chandragupta Maurya studied
here. It was also a Buddhist site.
4) Withe reference to the invaders in ancient
correct chronological order?
(a) Greeks - Sakas - Kushans
(b) Greeks - Kushans - Sakas
(c) Sakes - Greeks - Kushans
(d) Sakas - Kushans - Greeks
Ans:- (a)
Expl:- In Post Mauryan Peroids, there were three important foreign dynasties to
rule India. They were Greeks (200BC), Sakas(100 BC) and Kushanas(50AD).
5) Consider the following statements :?
1. The Ikshvaku rulers of
2. The Pala rulers of
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans:- (b)
Expl:- The Ikshvaku rulers Patronised Buddhism. They Renovated the famous Buddhist
chaityas of Nagarjuna Konda and Amaravati.
6) Which one of the following revolts was made famous by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
in his novel Anand Math
(a) Bhil uprising
(b) Rangpur and Dinapur uprising
(c) Bishnupur and Birbhum rebellion
(d) Sanyasi rebellion
Ans:- (d)
Expl:- 'Bande Matram' song of 'Anand Math' was based on Sanyasi rebellion.
7) In the year 1613, where was the English East India Company given permission to set
up a factory(trading post)?
(a)
(b)
(c) Masulipattam
(d)
Ans: (d)
Expl:- The first settlement of English was Masulipattam(1611).
8) With reference to the revolt of the year 1857, who of the following was betrayed by a
friend; captured and put to death by the British?
(a) Nana Sahib
(b) Kunwar Singh
(c) Khan Bahadur Khan
(d) Tantia Tope
Ans:- (d)
Expl:- Tantia Tope , the famous Gurellia warfare expert was betrayed by the Zamindari
friend Mansingh.
9) Under whose presidency was the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress held
in the year 1929 wherein a resolution was adopted to gain complete independence from the British?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Motilal Nehru
Ans:- (c)
10) "Lectures from Colombo to Almora" is based on the experience of which one of the following?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3, only
(c) 1 and 2, only
(d) 3 only
Ans:- (d)
11) Consider the following statements about Madam Bhikaji Cama :
(1) Madam cama unfurled the National Flag at the International
Socialist Conference in
(2) Madam cama served as private secretary to Dadabhai Naoroji.
(3) Madam cama wasorn to Parsi parents
(a) 1,2 and 3.
(b) 2 and 3 only.
(c) 1 and 2 only.
(d) 3 only.
Ans:- (b)
Expl:- Madam Cama unfurled the National Flag at '
12) Who was the Governor-General of India during the Sepoy Mutiny ?
(a) Lord Canning
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Hardinge
(d) Lord Lytton
Ans:- (a) Expl:
- Expl:- Lord Canning was the last Governor - General and first Viceroy of India.
His tenure : 1856 - 1862.
13) In Indian history, who was Abdul Hamid Lahori ?
(a) An important military commander during Akbar's reign
(b) An official historian of the reign of Shah Jahan
(c) An important noble and confidant of Aurangzeb
(d) A chronicler and poet during the reign of Muhammad Shah
Ans:- (b)
Expl:- Lahori wrote 'Badshah - Nama' in Persian.
14) Bhakta Tukaram was a contemporary of which Mughal Emperor ?
(a) Babar
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Aurangzeb
Ans:- (c)
Expl:- Bhakta Tukaram was the contemporary of the Mughal Emperor Jahangir and
Prince Aurangazeb.
15)Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the Afghan rulers to
the throne of
(a) Sikandar Shah - Ibrahim Lodi - Bahlol Khan Lodi
(b) Sikandar Shah - Bahlol Khan Lodi - Ibrahim Lodi
(c) Bahlol Khan Lodi - Sikandar Shah - Ibrahim Lodi
(d) Bahlol Khan Lodi - Ibrahim Lodi - Sikandar Shah
Ans:- (c)
Expl:- Founder : Bahlol Lodi; Last Ruler : Ibrahim Lodi.
16) Who among the following laid the foundation of Rashtrakuta Empire ?
(a) Amoghavarsha I
(b) Dantidurga
(c) Dhruva
(d)
Ans:- (b)
Expl:- Founder of Rastrakuda dynasty. Fuedatory of Chalukyas of Bhadami.
Performed Hiranya Garpa ceremony.
17) Match List I (Finding/Invention/Calculation) with
List II (Ancient Indian Scholar) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List I List II
(Finding/Invention/ (Ancient
Calculation) Indian Scholar)
A. Time taken by the Earth 1. Aryabhatta
to orbit the Sun
B. Calculation of the value of 2. Bhaskaracharya
('pi')
C. Invention of the digit zero 3. Budhayana
D. The game of snakes and 4. Gyandev
ladders
Code : A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 1 4 2 3
Ans:- (?)
Expl:- A) Time taken by the Earth to orbit the Sun - Bhaskara Charya
B) Calculation of the value of (pi) - Aryabhatta
C) Invention of the digit zero. It was first mentioned in Aryabattam. But,
it existed before
D) The game of Snakes and Ladders - Budhayama
18) Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
Prominent Indian Writer Language
(a) Raja Rao : Telugu
(b) Gobind Trimbuk Deshpande : Marathi
(c) Subramaniyam Bharati : Tamil
(d) Tara Shankar Joshi : Gujarati
Ans:- (a)
Expl:- Raja Rao wrote in English, He wrote KantaPuma. The serpent and the Rope,
The Cat and Shakespeare.
19) Match List I (Place of Archaeological Monument) with List II (State) and
select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List I List II
(Place of Archaeological (State)
Monument)
A. Sisupalgarh 1.
B. Piprahwa 2. Manipur
C. Goalpara 3. Orissa
D. Bishnupur 4. Uttar Pradesh
Code :
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 1 4 2 3
Ans:- (c)
20) Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(a) Vikramsila Monastery : Uttar Pradesh
(b) Hemkund Gurudwara : Himachal Pradesh
(c) Udhayagiri Caves : Maharashtra
(d) Amaravati : Andhra Pradesh Buddhist Stupa
Ans:- (d)
Expl:- (a) Vikramsila Monastery : Bengal
(b) Hemkund Gurudwara : Punjab
(c) Udhayagiri Caves : Orissa
21) The Allahabad Pillar inscription is associated with which one of the following ?
(a) Mahapadma Nanda
(b) Chandragupta maurya
(c) Ahoka
(d) Samudragupta
Ans:- (d)
Expl:-Allahabad Pillar inscription of Samudragupta was written by his court poet
and Commander-in-chief Harisena in Sanskrit.
22) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) State Recorganization Act : Andhra Pradesh
(b) Treaty of Yandabu :
(c) State of Bilaspur : Himachal Pradesh
(d) Year 1966 : Gujarat becomes a state
Ans:- (d)
Expl:- The state of
23) The initial design and construction of whih massive temple took place during the
reign of Suryavarman II ?
(a)Sri Mariamman Temple
(b) Angkor Vat
(c) Batu Caves Temple
(d) Kumakhya Temple
Ans:- (b)
Expl:- Angkor Vat, a Vishnu temple was built by Suryavarman II.
24) Assertion (A) :
Muhammad bin Tughluq Issued a new gold
coin which was called Dinar by Ibn Batutah.
Reason (R) :
Muhammad bin Tughluq wanted to issue token
currency in gold coin to promote trade with
West Asian and North African countries
Ans :-(c)
Public Administration 2005 (pre) question paper
C.S.E. PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION - 2005
(PRELIMINARY)
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks :300
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Shri Jagjivan Ram was appointed as the Chairman of the Central Social
Welfare Board when it was set up in 1953.
2. The National Commission for Women was set up as a national apex statutory
body in 1992.
3. The National Institute of Public Co-operation and Child Development is an
autonomous body and functions under the aegis of the Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3
2. Which one among the following is associated with the, 'Report of Public
Administration' and the 'Report on Efficient Conduct of State Enterprise'?
(a) The Ayyangar Committee, 1949
(b) The Secretariat Reorganization Committee, 1947
(c) The Gorwala Report, 1951
(d) The Appleby Reports, 1953 and 1956
3. Whi~h one of the following is the correct chronological order of the
following Commissions/Committees in
(a) The Aitchison Commission - The Tottenham Committee –
The Lee Commission - The Islington Commission
(b) The Lee Commission - The Islington Commission
The Aitchison Commission - The Tottenham Committee
(c) The Aitchison Commission -The Islington Commission
The Lee Commission - The Tottenham Committee
(d) The Lee Commission - The Tottenham Committee
The Aitchison Commission - The Islington Commission
4. Match items in the List I (Country) with those in the List II (Features of
Civil Service) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List I List II
A U.S.A. 1. Tradition of administrative centralization is
undergoing change
B Great Britain 2. The office of Personnel Management is an
independent agency under the President
C France 3. 'Next Steps' programmes sought to transform
structure of management of the civil service
D Japan 4. Bureaucratic elitism is reinforced by educational
and employment system
http://www.civilserviceindia.com
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 3 1 2
5. Consider the following statements in respect of the civil services in the
1. All Federal posts are recruited on the basis of merit.
2. Hatch Acts prohibited partisan political activities of civil servants.
3. There are short-term political appointments and permanent career services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 only
6. Match items in the List I (Types of Training) with those in the List II
(Features) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List I List II
A Vestibule 1. It involves frequent re-assignment to training
different divisions of the organization
B. Retraining 2. It has a specific job - centred focus & includes
formal instructions
C. Circular training 3. It involves a series of introductory lectures
followed by inspection trips to the departments
and field stations to provide first-hand
knowledge
D. Induction training 4. It involves instruction in a new field of
specialization or an extensive training in the old
field of specialization
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 1 4 3 2
7. Who among the following gave initial impetus, evolution of organizational
development (OD)?
(a) Robert Merton (b) David Hume
(c) Kurt Lewin (d) W. D. Ross
8. In which of the following countries does rank classification prevail?
1.
4. USA 5, India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (d) 1, 2 and 5
9. Which of the following are the functions of civil services in a developing
society?
1. Deciding policies 2. Drafting legislative bills
3. Pre-audit 4. Framing departmental legislation
5. Administration adjudication
http://www.civilserviceindia.com
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
10. In accordance with the managerial grid developed by Robert Blake and Jane
Mouton, which one of the following implies the leadership style that has a
high degree of concern for people and a low degree of concern for
production?
(a) Impoverished management
(b) Country club management
(c) Team management
(d) Middle of the road management
11. In the context of Likert's system of leadership styles in management, match
items in the List I (Approach) with List II (Attributes) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
Autocratic 1. Structured decisions
Benevolent 2. Team decisions
Consultative 3. Traditional decisions
Participative 4. Friendly climate for decisions
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 3 1 4 2
12. Match items in the List I (Management Thinker) with those in the List II
(Concept) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I List II
A Herbert Simon 1. Job enrichment
B. F.W. Taylor 2. Contribution – satisfaction equilibrium
C. Frederick Herzberg 3. Bounded rationality
D. C. I. Barnard 4. Functional foremanship
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 4. 2 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
13. Which one of the following best describes the relationship between policies
and procedures in an organization?
(a) Policy and procedure offer equal discretion in decision making
(b) Procedures are laid down before the policies are adopted
(c) Policies are more stable than the procedures
(d) Procedures may be same for all departments within al organization while the
policies might differ
14. In a traditional autocratic system, the manager would specify both the
standards for performance and the methods for achieving them. In a
participative management system, which of the following is specified by a
manager?
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(a) Only the methods for achieving the standards performance
(b) Neither the standards of performance nor the methods for achieving them
(c) Both the standards of performance and the methods for achieving them .
(d) Only the standards of performance
15. Consider the following statements:
Contractual employment in public employment has been advocated because:
1. it is a project work of a purely temporary nature to be completed in specified
time.
2. it requires specialised skills and inputs for short duration.
3. it is a legitimate and accepted form of employment.
4. it is required for purposes of lateral entry for various positions. at senior
level.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
16. Match List I (Terms) with List II (Defined by) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
Consolidated Fund of
Money Bill 2. Article 267
Annual Financial Statement 3. Article 266
Contingency Fund of
5. Article 112
A B C D A B C D
(a) 5 1 4 2 (b) 3 2 5 1
(c) 5 2 4 1 (d) 3 1 5 2
17. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act introduced a new part IX A in the
Constitution of India.
2. The provisions of the Constitution (74th Amendment) Act also apply to the
Scheduled Areas & Tribal Areas governed by Article 244 (1) and (2) of the
Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act specifies the manner and procedure
of election of the Chairperson of a Municipal Corporation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
18. When were 17 Departmental Related Standing Committees set up in
on the recommendations of the Rule Committee of the Lok Sabha?
(a) 1964 (b) 1977
(c) 1990 (d) 1993
19. In which one of the following countries is the 'Doctrine of Co-directorship'
prevalent as a method of control over administration?
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(a)
(c) Switzerland (d)
20. Which one of the following is the correct ascending order of the
administrative levels in a State?
(a) Secretariat - Directorate - Divisional – District
(b) Directorate - Secretariat - Divisional – District
(c) Secretariat - Divisional - District – Directorate
(d) District - Divisional - Directorate - Secretariat
21. Consider the following Committees appointed in
report on local governments:
1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
2. Ashok Mehta Committee
3. Smt. Daya Choubey Committee
4. R.K. Khanna Committee
Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence in which these
Committees were set up?
(a) 2 - 3 - 4 - 1 (b) 1 - 4 - 3 - 2
(c) 2 - 4 - 3 - 1 (d) 1 - 3 - 4 - 2
22. In the post-independence period the Government appointed several
committees and commissions to improve the urban local bodies. Some of
them are:
1. Rural-Urban Relationship Committee
2. Taxation Enquiry Commission
3. National Commission on Urbanization
4. Local Finance Enquiry Committee
Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence in which the
above committees and commissions were set up?
(a) 1-2-4-3 (b) 4-3-1-2
(c) 1 - 3 - 4 - 2 (d) 4 - 2 - 1 - 3
23. When was the first municipal corporation in
(a) 1587 (b) 1687
(c) 1787 (d) 1887
24. Consider the following statements:
1. Game theory highlights the explicit role of human relationship and
interactions in decisions
2. Methods on decision making based on heuristic principles proceed along
empirical lines.
3. Dynamic nature of organizational objectives is one of the reasons for
decision making characterized by bounded rationality.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Directions: The following 6 (SIX) items consist of two statements: one
labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other III as 'Reason (R)'. You are to
examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to these items
using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true
25. Assertion (a): In spite of changes having taken place in the administrative
scenario, heart burning between 'generalists' and 'specialists'
continues.
Reason (R) The requirements of economic and technological development
have drastically changed the ratio-relationship between
'generalists' and 'specialists'
26. Assertion (a): H.A. Simon was the first to give a meaningful analysis of the
decision making process.
Reason (R) Classical thinkers like Fayol and Urwick did not see decisionmaking
as an all-pervasive concept. .
27. Assertion (a): McGregor's Theory Y is based on the external control of
human behaviour.
Reason (R) Theory Y is characterized by decentralization of authority.
28. Assertion (a): State Five-Year plans and annual plans have to be approved by
the Planning Commission.
Reason (R) Membership of National Development Council consists of the
Prime Minister as the Chairman, all Union Cabinet Ministers,
Chief Ministers of all States and representatives of the
29. Assertion (a): The Chief Secretary of a State acts as the ex-officio Secretary
to the Council of Ministers in the State.
Reason (R) The powers and functions of Chief Secretary of a State are
.listed in the Constitution of India.
30. Assertion (a): If in a cut motion during discussion of demands for grants In
the Annual Financial Statement, the reduction demanded is
either in the form of a lump sum or omission or reduction of an
item in the demand, the motion which enables such cut is
known as 'Economy Cut'.
Reason (R) The motion in the above case represents disapproval of the
policy underlying the demand.
31. Which one among the following is not a function of the State Secretariat?
(a) To assist a Minister in the formulation of policy
(b) To act as channel of communication.
(c) To prepare drafts of the legislation to be introduced in the Legislative
Assembly
(d) To assist the legislature In secretarial work
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32. Which one of the following was recommended by the Administrative
Reforms Commission regarding Directorates?.
(a) The distinction between the Secretariat as the policy making body and the
Directorate as the executive agency should be abolished
(b) The Directors must be granted ex-officio status as Secretaries
(c) There should be liberal delegation of powers from the Secretariat to the
Directorate
(d) There should be uniformity in the powers delegated to all the Directorates
33. Consider the following statements: Lord Ripon's resolution of 1882 provided
new life to the local bodies, which were later hampered by several factors,
such as
1. hostile attitude of Lord Curzon towards local bodies.
2. obstructive tactics of the bureaucracy.
3. sudden expansion of elected non-officials.
4. reduction of official control of Deputy Commissioners.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
34. Match List I (Institutions) with
the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
A Comptroller & Auditor General of
B. Finance Commission
C. Administrative Tribunals
D. Union Public Service Commission
list II
1. Article 315
2. Article 280
3. Article 148
4. Article 323 (A)
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 1 4 2 3
35. Which of the following statements are correct about the post of Cabinet
Secretary?
1. He works under the direct control of Prima Minister.
2. He is usually the seniormost civil servant of the country.
3. The official warrant of precedence gives him the first place among the civil
servants.
4. He is the head of the Cabinet Secretariat.
5. This office was created in 1950.
Select the correct answer using the- codes gjven below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
36. Which one of the following government documents first suggested for having
elections of Panchayati Raj Institutions on political party basis?
(a) Report of the Administrative Reforms Commission
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee Report
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(c) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Report
(d) Diwakar Committee Report
37. A metropolitan committee can be set up in an area having population
(a) 3 lac - 4.99 lac (b) 5 lac - 9.99 lac
(c) Up to 10 lac (d) Above 10 lac.
38. Which of the following functions are performed by a Gram Sabha?
1. All public problems are discussed.
2. Village budget and programmes are framed.
3. Beneficiaries of various government programmes are identified.
4. In order to keep a watch on the panchayats, a Vigilance Committee is
constituted.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
39. Which of the following are included in the non-tax revenue of the municipal
bodies?.
1. Toll on new bridge.s 2. Fees and fines
3. Income from enterprises 4. Octroi
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
40. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the finances
of urban local government?
(a) They can apply for loans from State Government, Union Government, World
Bank or other international agencies
(b) Their borrowing powers are defined in the Municipal Act
(c) Most of the urban local bodies are dependent on finances provided by the
State Government
(d) State Government charges interest on loans and decides time limit for its
repayment
41. Consider the following with reference to 73rd Constitution Amendment in
respect of Panchayati Raj
1. Direct elections of members at all levels.
2. Direct elections of chairpersons at the village level.
3. Indirect election of chairpersons at the intermediate levels and district levels.
4. Mandatory provision for holding elections.
Which of the above are the provisions of the 73rd Constitution Amendment in
respect of Panchayati Raj?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
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42. Which of the following are the common compulsory provisions of the 73rd
and 74th Constitution Amendment Act?
1. Five yearly elections
2. Reservation for backward classes
3. Reservation for women 4. Nagar Panchayats
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
43. Which one of the following provisions has been left to the will of the State
Governments in the 73'd Constitution Amendment Act?
(a) Providing reservation to the Backward Classes
(b) All posts at all levels to be filled by direct elections
(c) Reservation. of seats for SC/ST in proportion to their population
(d) Reservation up to 1/3 seats for women in panchayats
44. 'Good Governance' and 'Participating Civil Society for Development' were
stressed in World Bank Report of
(a) 1992 (b) 1997
(c) 2000 (d) 2003
45. Which one of the following is not upheld by New Public Administration?
(a) Value based approach (b) Dogmas of efficiency and economy
(c) Social equity in service delivery (d) Relevant research
46. Which one of the following is mainly discussed in "The Next Society" by
Peter Drucker?
(a) Demographics' (b) New economy
(c) Knowledge society (d) Information techno-society
47. Consider the following statements:
Coordination in an organisation is necessary to
1. stop growing tendency towards empire building.
2. avoid conflicts or overlapping in the work of the employees.
3. concentrate on one aspect of work.
4. achieve the goals of an organisation effectively.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
48. Consider the following statements:
1. Estimates of expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India are
not submitted to the vote of the Parliament and there can be no discussion on
the same in either House of the Parliament.
2. Vote of credit is a grant approved by the Parliament in advance of the
detailed examination of various demands presented to it.
3. Token grants do not involve additional expenditure.
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 2 and 3
49. Match List I (Management Expert) with List II (Major Area) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below:
List I List II
A. Philip Kotler 1. Organizational change
B. Robert C Merton 2. Business process re-engineering
C. Michael Hammer 3. Derivative pricing formula
D. Peter M. Senge 4. Marketing Management
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4. 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 2 3 1
50. Consider the following statements:
1. There are 25 state cadres in all for the all-India services.
2. The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions is the cadrecontrolling
authority for all the three all-India services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
51. Consider the following statements:
1. If the Rajya Sabha has declared by resolution supported by not less than twothirds
of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in
the national interest to do so, Parliament may by law provide for the creation
of one or more all-India services.
2. Article 311 of the Constitution of India deals with the dismissal or removal of
a person who is a member of a civil service' of the Union or an all-India
service or a civil service of a State or holds a civil post under the
State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
52. Which of the following organizations are under the administrative control of
the Department of Personnel and Training, the Ministry of Personnel,
Public Grievances and Pensions, Government of India?
1. Central Vigilance Commission 2. Central Administrative Tribunal
3.
4.
5. Union Public Service Commission
6. Public Enterprises Selection Board
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 3, 4 and 5 (b) 5 and 6
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 (d) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6
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53. Match List I (Institute) with List II (Location) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List I
A Vaikunth Mehta National Institute of
Cooperative Management
B. Institute of Applied Manpower Research
C. National Institute of Rural Development
D. Defence Institute of Work Studies
List II
1.
2. Pune
3. Mussoorie
4.
5.
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 2 5 1 3
(c) 3 5 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
54. Who among the following studied the impact of computers on the
hierarchical pyramid of an organization?
(a) John Rawls (b) John Pfiffner
(c) Elton Mayo (d) David Rusk
55. Consider the following statements:
1. The universal design theory of organization emphasizes on informal structure
of organization
2. The situational design theory of organization views an organization as a
closed system.
3. The traditional approach favours a rigid hierarchical structure of
organization.
4. The system approach favours a flexible participative structure of
organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only (b) 1,2 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
56. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of Max Weber's model of
bureaucracy?
(a) Offices are arranged in the form of a hierarchy
(b) All organizational members are to be selected on the basis of technical
qualifications
(c) Control in the bureaucratic organization is based on personally applied rules
(d) Officials pursue their careers within the organization
57. Consider the following stages:
1. Politics - administration dichotomy
2. The humanistic challenge
3. Search for universal principles
4. New Public Administration
5. Focus on inter-disciplinary studies
6. Paradigm shifts
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the above stages of
historical evolution of Public Administration as a discipline?
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(a) 1 - 3 - 2 - 5 - 4 - 6 (b) 4 - 2 - 3 - 1 - 6 - 5
(c) 1 - 2 - 3 - 5 - 4 - 6 (d) 4 - 3 - 5 - 1 - 6 - 2
58. Which one of the following statements is correct about the difference
between supervision and span of control?
(a) Supervision is directing and guiding the subordinates, while span of control is
the exercise of authority
(b) Supervision is directing and guiding the subordinates, while span of control
relates to the number of subordinates being directed
(c) Supervision relates to the number of subordinates being directed, while span
of control is directing and guiding the subordinates
(d) Supervisioin is the exercise of authority while span of control is taking
punitive action against the underperforming employees.
59. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of the classical approach
of Public Administration?
(a) Acceptance of politics - administration dichotomy
(b) The search for principles of administration through scientific analysis .
(c) An emphasis on the centralization of executive activities
(d) Focus on informal and socio-emotional aspects of organizations
60. Consider the following statements about the behavioural approach:
1. It is-concerned with the scientific study of human behaviour
2. It was started by Chester Barnard and later on developed by Herbert Simon.
3. "Its literature is mostly descriptive and not perspective.
4. It stresses on informal relations and communication patterns.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
61. Which one of the following is not correct about system approach?
(a) A system is more than sum of its parts
(b) A system can be considered to be either closed or open
(c) Boundaries in a system are not rigid, impenetrable, or closed
(d) If a system is to achieve dynamic equilibrium, it must not have interactions
with its environment
62. Consider the following statements in respect of bureaucratic form of
organizational design:
1. The primary strength of the bureaucracy lies in its ability to perform nonstandardized
activities in a highly efficient manner.
2. In bureaucracy, there is little need for innovative and experienced decision
makers below the level of senior executives;
3. The pervasiveness of rules and regulations substitutes for managerial
discretion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
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63. Which one of the following is not an essential feature of supervision?
(a) Development of agreed work standards between supervisor and subordinates
(b) Developing report forms for subordinates
(c) Resolving conflicts and misunderstanding among subordinates
(d) Fault finding and punishing subordinates
64. Which one of the following generalisations can be drawn from
decentralisation of powers?
(a) 'Planning from below' is a good illustration of this phenomenon
(b) Jurisdictional lines are to be identified
(c) Decisions will affect overall policies
(d) Local officers will report to more than one central agency
65. Match List I (Theory of Motivation) with List II (Premise) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below:
List I
A. Theory X
B. Theory Y
C. Two Factor theory of F. Herzberg
List II
1. Self-direction and self-control
2. Motivation is a product of anticipated worth of a goal and chances of
achieving that goal
3. Reliance on extemal control of human behaviour
4. Job enrichment instead of job enlargement as a motivation strategy
A B C A B C
(a) 2 1 4 (b) 3 4 1
(c) 2 4 1 (d) 3 1 4
66. Who was analysed leadership in termsof circular response?
(a) C.I.Barnard (b) Mooney
(c) M.P. Follett (d) Millet
67. Which of the following specific incentives for the satisfaction of an
individual have been identified by C.I. Barnard?
1. Material inducements
2. Personal non-material opportunities
3. Desirable physical conditions of work
4. Ideal benefactions ,
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 ,
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
68. Which of the following concepts are associated with M.P. Follet?
1. Functional authority 2. 'Bottom-up' authority
3. Conflict and integration 4. 'Power over' and 'Power with'
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
69. Which of the following concepts are associated with C.I. Barnard? I~
1. Contribution - Satisfaction Equilibrium
2. Zone of Acceptance
3. Strategic Factors in Decision Making
4. Acceptance theory of Authority
5. Organisation as Cooperative System
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 5
70. Which of the following are associated with Simon?
1. He equated administration with decision-making.
2. He did not stress upon decision-making as an alternative to the structural
approach.
3. He proposed a new concept of administration based up on logical positivism.
4. He distinguished between programmed & non-programme decisions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) .1,2 and 3 (b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
71. Which of the following factors are labelled as job dissatisfiers by F.
Herzberg?
1. Salary 2. Supervision
3. Responsibility 4. Work itself
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
72. Who among the following writers concluded that 'people preferred jobs that
offered opportunities for recognition, achievement and responsibility'?
(a) A. Maslow (b) D. McGregor
(c) F. Herzberg (d) Rensis Likert
73. Consider the following statements:
1. Functional classification was recnlT1mended by the Fifth Central Pay
Commission.
2. Position classification results in uniform treatment for promotions.
3. For recruitment to the existing three All-India Services, the Union Public
Service Commission is involved only with the recruitment through open
competition examinations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
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74. Consider the following statements in respect of the Contingency Theory of
Leadership:
1. In extreme unfavourable or extreme favourable situations, a human relation
oriented leader is more effective.
2. In a moderately unfavourable or moderately favourable situation, a taskoriented
leader is more effective.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
75. Who among the following revised the Human Relations approach of Prof. E.
Mayo into a New Human Relations model of management?
(a) Fritz Roethlisberger (b) Rensis Likert
(c) James MacGregor (d) Mary Parker Follet
76. For every 'principle' of administration, there is a Counterprinciple, thus
rendering the whole idea of principles moot. Which one of the following
brought the above point of view?
(a) The Science of Public Administration by R. Dahl
(b) Administrative Behaviour by H. Simon
(c) Ventures in Public Policy by Y. Dror
(d) Administrative State by D. Waldo
77. Consider the following statements: According to Ferrel Heady, both
Comparative Public Administration and International Administration are
similar because
1. both avoid concentration on the administrative system of one single nation.
2. both disregard any administrative system as 'Ideal'.
3. both have a similar framework for analysis:
4. both believe in gradual convergence for mutual benefit.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
78. Which of the following are the motivating concerns which Comparative
Public Administration addresses as an intellectual enterprise?
1. The search for theory.
2. The urge for practical application.
3. The incidental contribution to the broader field of comparative politics.
4. The comparative analysis of ongoing problems of public administration.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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79. Which one of the following statements is acceptable to the protagonists of
New Public Administration?
Rationality as a value
(a) leads to efficient performance
{b) causes flexibility problem in prioritisation
(c) is mere common sense
(d) is rooted in morality
80. Consider the following statements:
'The crisis of identity' in Public Administration in the seventies was
accentuated by
1. the demise of Wilsonian dichotomy
2. the protests made by post-behaviouralists .
3. the growth of Comparative Public Administration
4. the expansion of private administration and market debate Which of the
statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
81. Which one of the following is a clear and distinct line of authority among the
positions in organisations?
(a) Organisational design (b) Chain of command
(c) Hierarchy (d) Departmentalisation
82. Task achievement and excellence of performance in accomplishing a task
are emphasized sometimes at the expense of obedience to one's superior.
Which one of the following has the above as a principal feature?
(a) Closed model organisation
(b) Open model organisation
(c) Bureaucratic organisation
(d) The newer tradition organisation
83. Which one of the following is not correct in relation to the meaning of
delegation?
(a) Entrustment of responsibility to another for performance (b)Entrustment of
powers and rights; or authority, to be exercised
(c) Creation of an obligation, or accountability, on the part of the person
accepting the delegation to perform in terms of the standards established
(d) Shifting of workload without transferring corresponding authority to make a
decision
84. Which of the following are provided for by the Constitution (74th
Amendment) Act in respect of planning of urban and rural local
governments?
1. Constitution of the District Planning Committee
2. Not less than 2/3'd of the District Planning Committee should be elected by,
from amongst, the elected members of district panchayats and municipalities.
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3. All other details regarding the composition of the District Planning
Committee are left to the State Legislatures.
4. Constitution of the Metropolitan Planning Committee. Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1,2and3 (b) 2and4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
85. Which one of the following is the main cause of the scalar system?
(a) Unity of command (b) Hierarchy
(c) Delegation (d) Coordination
86. Which one of the following statements illustrates the principle of span of
control?.
(a) The levels of management connote no inherent superiority and inferiority
(b) Automation, mechanisation and specialisation have brought about a sea
change in decision making
(c) The old concept of one single superior for each personis seldom found
(d) The ever increasing role of administration has focused attention on unity in
the administrative process
87. Match Ust I (Type of Delegation) with List II (Explanation) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
A Specific delegation
B. Accrued delegation
C. Unwritten delegation
D. Sideward delegation
List II
1. Subordinate can delegate his authority to his immediate superiors
2, Authority is delegated on the basis of custom or usage
3. A person delegates authority to another who is also in the same rank in the
organisation
4. Orders, instructions or directions are delegated to a particular person
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 3 2 1
88. Consider the following statements:
1. The Estimates Committee of Parliament lacks the expert assistance of the
Comptroller & Auditor General of
Accounts Committee of Parliament.
2. All the Ministries / Departments of the Union Government are not taken up
for examination every year by the Estimates Committee, but only a few of
them are selected for this purpose. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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89. Consider the following statements:
1. The Comptroller & Auditor General or India / the Chairman & the Members
of the Union Public Service Commission are appointed by the President if
India by warrant under his hand and seal and shall be removed from his
office in like manner & on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his office on grounds of
proved misbehaviour or incapacity after an address by each House of
Parliament is supported by a majority of total membership of that House.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
90. Consider the following statements:
1. Since 1989, the responsibility for evaluation and processing of proposals
relating to the capital restructuring of various public sector undertakings of
the Union Government is entrusted to the Controller General of Accounts.
2. The Institute of Government Accounts and Finance is situated in Pune.
3. The Expenditure Reforms Committee which completed its term in
September, 2001 was set up under the Chairmanship of YV Reddy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 only
91. Consider the following statements:
1. The Central Government took the historical step of separating accounts from
the audit function in respect of various ministries and departments under the
Central Government in 1980.
2. Ashoka Chanda was the first Comptroller and Auditor General of
3. Even after the separation of accounts function from the audit function, the
Comptroller and Auditor General of
Finance Accounts and Appropriation Accounts prepared by the Controller
General of Accounts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
92. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Committee Subject
(a) L.M. Singhvi Committee, 1986 Constitutional Status for
Panchayati Raj
(b) Santhanam Committee, 1964 Prevention of corruption
(c) Satish Chandra Committee, 1988 Civil Services Examination, Union Public
Service Commission
(d) Gore Committee, 1974 Parliamentary control over public
expenditure
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93. Which among the following are the features of participative management?
1. Overlapping structures
2. Cross-functional linkages
3. Multi-directional communication
4. Effective man-to-man relationship
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c.) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
94. Consider the following statements:
1. Auxiliary agencies have no execution or operative responsibilities.
2. Staff agencies are attached to the line agencies at different levels in the
hierarchy.
3. Line agencies provide channels of communication. Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
95. Consider the following statements:
The purpose of judicial control over administration is
1. to control the policy and expenditure of the government
2. to ensure the lagality of officials' acts and thereby to safeguard the rights of
the citizens.
3. to bring all officials under the control of the people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
96. With regard to judicial control over administration what does 'malfeasance'
stand for?
(a) Error of procedure (b) Abuse of authority
(c) Error of fact (d) Error of law
97. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Management by exception: The concept of minimum intervention by
exception in operation, and then only when fall/
rise in performance exceeds acceptable
variations in results
(b) Management by objectives: A technique used in planning and controlling
(c) Managerial development: Formal programmes of training structured to
improve managerial skills
(d) Managerial grid: Also called project management
98. Which of the following are intrinsically linked with administrative
accountability?
1. Hierarchy 2. Span of control
3. Unity of command 4. 4. Orders
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
99. Which one of the following is not a system of efficiency rating in the
(a) Production record system (b) Graphic rating scale system
(c) Personality inventory system (d) Personnel appraisal system
100. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of the French Civil
Service?
(a) Civil Service comprises a large number of corps
(b) France upholds a vertical classification of Civil Service
(c) ENA does recruitment for the Civil Service
(d) Promotion is time-bound and based on seniority
101. Which among the following recommended the introduction of performance
budget in
(a) Estimates Committee
(b) Appleby Report
(c) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(d) Administrative Reforms Commission
102. Which of the following is/are the provisions of Article 18 of the Constitution
of
(a) No title, not being military or academic distinction, shall be conferred by the
State
(b) No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign State
(c) No person holding any office of profit or trust under the State, shall without
the consent of the President, accept any present, emolument or office of any
kind from or under any foreign State
(d) All of the above three
103. Which one of the following is not included in deficit financing in
(a) Withdrawal of past accumulated cash balance
(b) Borrowing from the Central bank
(c) Issue of new currency
(d) Borrowing from the people
104. Match List I (Grants) with List II (Explanation) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
A Vote on account 1. To make any grant in advance in respect of
estimated expenditure for a part of financial year
pending the completion of the procedure
prescribed in Article 113
B. Excess grant 2. To make a grant for meeting an unexpected
demand upon resources of
C. Exceptional grant 3. To take approval for money spent during a
financial year in excess of amount granted for the
service
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D. Supplementary 4. To take approval if the amount grantauthorized by
law for the current year is found insufficient
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 2 3 1 4
105. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Personnel
Authority of Japan:
1. The National Personnel Authority of Japan was created by the National
Public Service Law.
2. It is responsible for education and training of the public servants.
3. President and Commissioners of the National Personnel Authority of
are "appointed by the Cabinet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 only (d) 1 and 3
106. Which of the following statements is not correct in respect of civil service in
(a) Political activism is totally absent in the Japanese bureaucratic tradition.
(b) The lateral movement between ministries in the Japanese civil service is
limited.
(c) There is dominance of law background graduates in the Japanese civil
service.
(d) The National Personnel Authority has all the non-elective and non-political
appointments, excluding specified posts under its control.
107. Consider the following statements in respect of the civil service in
1. The French Civil Service is dominated by the law experts.
2. Ecole National de Administration conducts competitive examination for entry
into the Government service.
3. Ecole National de Administration is not responsible for providing training to
the civil servants.
4. French civil servants are in enjoyment of political rights to a far greater
extent, as compared to those of other countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
108. Under which provision does the Governor of a State constitute a State
Finance Commission to review the financial position of Panchayats?
(a) Under the discretionary powers of the Governor
(b) By a resolution passed in the Legislative Assembly
(c) In accordance with the Article 2431 of the Constitution of India
(d) In accordance with a resolution passed in the Rajya Sabha
109. Article 143 of the Constitution of India deals with the Governor for each
State. By which Amendment Act, has it been provided that the same person
can be appointed Governor for more than one State?
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(a) Fifth (b) Seventh
(c) Ninth (d) Eleventh
110. In which one of the following methods of training, is a particular topic
chosen and specific groups are assigned the task of making an in-depth
'study of that subject under the guidance of an expert faculty?
(a) Case study method (b) Critical incident method
(c) Sensitivity method (d) Syndicate method
111. Which of the following Commissions I Reports recommended setting up of
Indian Institute of Public Administration?
(a) Union Public Service Commission
(b) Planning Commission
(c) A.D. Gorwala Report (d) Paul H. Appleby Report
112. Match items in the List I (Commission/Report) with those in List II
(Recommendation) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists: .
List I List II
A Aitchison Commission 1. Increase of emoluments for the members
of the Civil Services in order to dissuade
the European Civil Servants from
returning home
B. Islington Commission 2. Proposed classification of all the services
into Imperial provincial and subordinate
services
C. Montague Chelmsford Report 3. Holding of simultaneous examinations in
D. Lee 4. To associate Indians with Commission
administration in every branch
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 2 1 3 4
113. Which one of the following does not come in the ambit of recommendations
by the Finance Commission?
(a) The distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and States
(b) The principles to be followed by the Centre while giving grants-in-aid to the
States out of .the Consolidated Fund of India
(c) The amount of money to be allocated to States from the Public Account of
India
(d) Any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interest
of sound finance
114. Consider the following statements in respect of the Prime Ministar's
Secretariate :
1. It enjoys the status of a Department of the Government of India under
allocation of business rules
2. It has a few attached and subordinate offices under it.
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3. It came into existence immediately after independence replacing the
Secretary to the Governor General.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only (d) 1 and 3
115. Consider the following statements in respect of the Central Secretariat in
1. It assists the Council of Ministers in the fulfilment of its responsibilities and
duties.
2. It is based on the belief that policy-making must be separated from policy
execution.
3. Secretarial system in
systems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
116. Which are the functions of the attached offices to a ministry?
1. Providing execution direction required in the implementation of policies.
2. Serving as a repository of technical information.
3. Advising the concerned ministry on technical aspects of policies.
4. Detailed execution of the policies of the government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
117. Match List I (Concept) with List II (Propunder) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
A. Daily balance chart 1. F.W. Taylor
B. Science of motion study 2. Emerson
C. Efficiency System 3. Gilberth
D. Shop floor activities 4. H.L.Gantt
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 2 3 1
118. What is the purpose of issue of Mandamus?
(a) Directing an official for the performance of a duty
(b) Release of an illegally detained person
(c) Transferring of a case from an inferior court to a court of higher jurisdiction
(d) Calling upon one to show as to by what authority he holds or claims a
franchise or office
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119. Which of the following opportunities is provided by the Appropriation Bill
to the legislature?
(a) To discuss the policy and other matters related to the expenditure of various
ministries
(b) To change amount of demands of various ministries
(c) To reallocate the grants of various ministries
(d) To vary the amount of expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of
120. Consider the following statements:
1. There is provision under an Article of the Constitution of India, that
Parliament may by law provide for adjudication of disputes relating to waters
of inter-state rivers or river valleys.
2. Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 has been amended by the Centre to
empower States to abolish the State Administrative Tribunals, if they so
desire.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a)
7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (c)
13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d)
19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (d)
25. (b) 26. (b) 47. (d) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (b)
37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (a) 41. (d) 42. (d)
43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (b)
49. (d) 50. (d) 51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (b)
55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (c)
61. (d) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (a) 65. (d) 66. (c)
67. (d) 68. (d) 69. (b). 70. (b) 71. (a) 72. (c)
73. (b) 74. (d) 75. (b) 76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (d)
79. (d) 80. (c) 81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (d) 84. (c)
85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (b) 90. (b)
91. (d) 92. (d) 93. (b) 94. (c) 95. (b) 96. (b)
97. (d) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (d) 101. (d) 102. (d)
103.(d) 104. (a) 1 05.(d) 106. (a) 107. (c) 108. (c)
109. (b) 110. (d) 111. (d) 112. (d) 113. (c) 114. (d)
115. (d) 116. (d) 117. (b) 118. (a) 119. (a) 120. (c)
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